• 1. 
    Gypsum is a

  • mechanically formed sedimentary rock
  • igneous rock
  • chemically precipitated sedimentary rock
  • metamorphic rock
  • 2. 
    Which of the following sedimentary rocks changes into quartzite by metamorphic action ?

  • sand stone
  • lime stone
  • shale
  • gypsum
  • 3. 
    Which of the following represents a metamorphic rock? i) slate ii) shale iii) quartzite The correct answer is

  • only (iii)
  • both (i) and (iii)
  • both (ii) and (iii)
  • all (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • 4. 
    Quartitze is a

  • silicious rock
  • argillaceous rock
  • calcareous rock
  • aqueous rock
  • 5. 
    Which of the following is a mineral ?

  • basalt
  • granite
  • quartz
  • syenite
  • 6. 
    Slate is formed by metamorphic action on

  • shale
  • lime stone
  • sand stone
  • granite
  • 7. 
    Sandstone is a i) sedimentary rock ii) aqueous rock iii) silicious rock The correct answer is

  • only (i)
  • both (i) and (ii)
  • both (i) and (iii)
  • all (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • 8. 
    Which of the following is a rock ?

  • quartz
  • mica
  • gypsum
  • none of the above
  • 9. 
    Based on the following rocks and minerals, select the correct statement, quartz, shale, basalt, granite, marble, gypsum, mica

  • basalt and marble are the only metamorphic rocks
  • there is no sedimentary rock
  • granite is the only igneous rock
  • quartz and mica are minerals
  • 10. 
    A heavy stone is suitable for

  • arches
  • rubble masonry
  • roads
  • retaining walls
  • 11. 
    The stone suitable for rubble masonry should be.

  • hard
  • tough
  • heavy
  • light
  • 12. 
    Which of the following metamorphic rocks has the most weather resisting characteristics?

  • marble
  • quartzite
  • slate
  • lime stone
  • 13. 
    A good building stone should not absorb water more than

  • 5%
  • 10%
  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 14. 
    Which of the following has more fire resisting characteristics ?

  • marble
  • lime stone
  • compact sand stone
  • granite
  • 15. 
    Jumper is a tool used for

  • testing of stones
  • quarrying of stones
  • dressing of stones
  • none of the above
  • 16. 
    The important test to be conducted on a stone used in docks and harbors is-

  • hardness test
  • work ability test
  • weight test
  • toughness test
  • 17. 
    The predominant constituent which is responsible for strength in granite is

  • quartz
  • feldspar
  • mica
  • none of the above
  • 18. 
    Granite is not suitable for ordinary building purpose because

  • it can not be polished
  • it is not a fire proof material
  • it is costly
  • it has less crushing strength
  • 19. 
    Which of the following stone is best suited for construction of piers and abutments of a railway bridge ?

  • granite
  • sand stone
  • lime stone
  • quartzite
  • 20. 
    The preparation of surface of stone to obtain plain edges or to obtain stones of required size and shape is known as

  • quarrying of stones
  • blasting of stones
  • seasoning of stones
  • dressing of stones
  • 21. 
    Crushing strength of a good building stone should be more than

  • 50 MPa
  • 100 MPa
  • 150 MPa
  • 200 MPa
  • 22. 
    Specific gravity for most of the building stones lies between

  • 1.5 to 2.0
  • 2.0 to 2.5
  • 2.5 to 3.0
  • 3.0 to 3.5
  • 23. 
    Spalling hammer is used for

  • driving wooden headed chisels
  • rough dressing of stones
  • carving of stones
  • breaking small projection of stones
  • 24. 
    Cross cut saw is used for

  • cutting soft stones
  • cutting hard stones
  • cutting large blocks of stones
  • dressing stones
  • 25. 
    Sapwood consists of

  • innermost annular rings around the pith
  • portion of timber between heartwood and cambium layer
  • thin layers below the bark
  • thin fibre which extends from the pith outwards and holds the annular rings together
  • 26. 
    Which of the following trees yields hard wood ?

  • deodar
  • chir
  • shishum
  • pine
  • 27. 
    The radial splits which are wider on the outside of the log and narrower towards the pith are known as

  • heart shakes
  • cupshakes
  • starshakes
  • rindgalls
  • 28. 
    In which of the following pairs both trees yield soft wood?

  • deodar and shishum
  • chir and sal
  • sal and teak
  • chir and deodar
  • 29. 
    Which of the following timbers is suitable for making sports goods ?

  • mulberry
  • mahogany
  • sal
  • deodar
  • 30. 
    Assertion A : Shishum is used for decorative woodwork. Reason R : Shishum can be polished to an excellent finish. Select your answer according to the coding system given below :

  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • A is true but R is false
  • A is false but R is true
  • 31. 
    The disease of dry rot in timber is caused by

  • lack of ventilation
  • alternate wet and dry conditions
  • complete submergence in water
  • none of the above
  • 32. 
    Plywood has the advantage of’

  • greater tensile strength in longer direction
  • greater tensile strength in shorter direction
  • same tensile strength in all directions
  • none of the above
  • 33. 
    In which of the following directions, the strength of timber is maximum ?

  • parallel to grains
  • 45° to grains
  • perpendicular to grains
  • same in all directions
  • 34. 
    The moisture content in a well seasoned timber is

  • 4% to 6%
  • 10% to 12%
  • 15% to 20%
  • 100%
  • 35. 
    The trunk of tree left after cutting all the branches is known as

  • log
  • batten
  • plank
  • baulk
  • 36. 
    The age of a tree can be known by examining

  • cambium layer
  • annular rings
  • medullary rays
  • heart wood
  • 37. 
    Plywood is made by bonding together thin layers of wood in such a way that the angle between grains of any layer to grains of adjacent layers is

  • 30°
  • 45°
  • 90°
  • 38. 
    The plywood

  • has good strength along the panel only
  • can be spilt in the plane of the panel
  • has greater impact resistance to blows than ordinary wood
  • cannot be bent more easily than ordinary wood of same thickness
  • 39. 
    The practical limit of moisture content achieved in air drying of timber is

  • 5%
  • 15%
  • 25%
  • 35%
  • 40. 
    First class timber has an average life of

  • less than one year
  • 1 to 5 years
  • 5 to 10 years
  • more than 10 years
  • 41. 
    A first class brick when immersed in cold water for 24 hours should not absorb water more than

  • 15%
  • 20%
  • 22%
  • 25%
  • 42. 
    Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than

  • 3.5 N/mm2
  • 7.0 N/mm2
  • 10.5 N/mm2
  • 14.0 N/mm2
  • 43. 
    The main function of alumina in brick earth is

  • to impart plasticity
  • to make the brick durable
  • to prevent shrinkage
  • to make the brick impermeable
  • 44. 
    The percentage of alumina in a good brick earth lies between

  • 5 to 10%
  • 20 to 30%
  • 50 to 60%
  • 70 to 80%
  • 45. 
    Excess of alumina in brick earth makes the brick

  • impermeable
  • brittle and weak
  • to lose cohesion
  • to crack and warp on drying
  • 46. 
    The nominal size of the modular brick is

  • 190 mm x 90mmx 80 mm
  • 190 mm x 190 mm x 90 mm
  • 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
  • 200 mm x 200 mm x 100 mm
  • 47. 
    Percentage of silica in a good brick earth lies between

  • 5 to 10%
  • 20 to 30%
  • 50 to 60%
  • 70 to 80%
  • 48. 
    Excess of silica in brick earth results in

  • cracking and warping of bricks
  • loss of cohesion
  • enhancing the impermeability of bricks
  • none of the above
  • 49. 
    Which of the following ingredients of the brick earth enables the brick to retain its shape ?

  • alumina
  • silica
  • iron
  • magnesia
  • 50. 
    Which of the following pairs gives a correct combination of the useful and harmful constituents respectively of a good brick earth ?

  • lime stone and alumina
  • silica and alkalies
  • alumina and iron
  • alkalies and magnesium
  • 51. 
    The process of mixing clay, water and other ingredients to make brick is known as

  • kneading
  • moulding
  • pugging
  • drying
  • 52. 
    Advantage of a clamp compared to a kiln for burning bricks is that

  • it takes less time for burning
  • it gives more output of first class bricks
  • it has less initial cost
  • it is suitable when bricks are required in large numbers
  • 53. 
    The internal size of mould used in brick preparation is

  • equal to the size of a fully burnt brick
  • smaller than the size of a fully burnt brick
  • greater than the size of a fully burnt brick
  • none of the above
  • 54. 
    Pug mill is used for

  • preparation of clay
  • moulding of clay
  • drying of bricks
  • burning of bricks
  • 55. 
    Which of the following bricks are used for lining of furnaces ?

  • overburnt bricks
  • underburnt bricks
  • refractory bricks
  • first class bricks
  • 56. 
    The frog of the brick in a brick masonry is generally kept on

  • bottom face
  • top face
  • shorter side
  • longer side
  • 57. 
    Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is

  • 400
  • 450
  • 500
  • 550
  • 58. 
    Glazing is used to make earthenware

  • hard
  • soft
  • porous
  • impervious
  • 59. 
    Quick lime is

  • calcium carbonate
  • calcium oxide
  • calcium hydroxide
  • none of the above
  • 60. 
    Quick lime is ) slow in setting i) rapid in slacking ii) good in strength The correct answer is

  • only (i)
  • only (ii)
  • both (i) and (ii)
  • both (ii) and (iii)
  • 61. 
    Assertion A : Pure lime takes a long time to develop adequate strength. eason R : Pure lime has slow hardening characteristics. elect your answer according to the coding system given below :

  • Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
  • Both A and R are true and R is not a correct explanation of A.
  • A is true but R is false.
  • A is false but R is true.
  • 62. 
    Hydraulic lime is obtained by

  • burning of lime stone
  • burning of kankar
  • adding water to quick lime
  • calcination of pure clay
  • 63. 
    The main constituent which imparts hydraulicity to hydraulic lime is

  • calcium oxide
  • silica
  • clay
  • water
  • 64. 
    Study the following statements. i) Hydraulic lime is suitable for white washing, ii) Fat lime is suitable for whitewashing, iii) Hydraulic lime is suitable for making mortar, iv) Fat lime is suitable for making mortar. The correct answer is

  • (i) and (iv)
  • (ii) and (iii)
  • (i) and (ii)
  • (iii) and (iv)
  • 65. 
    The main ingredients of Portland cement are

  • lime and silica
  • lime and alumina
  • silica and alumina
  • lime and iron
  • 66. 
    The constituent of cement which is responsible for all the undesirable properties of cement is

  • dicalcium silicate
  • tricalcium silicate
  • tricalcium aluminate
  • tetra calcium alumino ferrite
  • 67. 
    Le Chatelier’s device is used for determining the

  • setting time of cement
  • soundness of cement
  • tensile strength of cement
  • compressive strength of cement
  • 68. 
    The main constituent of cement which is responsible for initial setting of cement is

  • dicalcium silicate
  • tricalcium silicate
  • tricalcium aluminate
  • all of the above
  • 69. 
    The initial setting time for ordinary Portland cement as per IS specifications should not be less than

  • 10 minutes
  • 30 minutes
  • 60 minutes
  • 600 minutes
  • 70. 
    As per IS specifications, the maximum final setting time for ordinary Portland cement should be

  • 30 minutes
  • 1 hour
  • 6 hours
  • 10 hours
  • 71. 
    For testing compressive strength of cement, the size of cube used is

  • 50 mm
  • 70.6 mm
  • 100 mm
  • 150 mm
  • 72. 
    The normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about

  • 10%
  • 20%
  • 30%
  • 40%
  • 73. 
    Early attainment of strength in rapid hardening cement is mainly due to

  • gypsum
  • finer grinding
  • tricalcium silicate
  • tricalcium aluminate
  • 74. 
    After storage, the strength of cement

  • decreases
  • increases
  • remains same
  • may increase or decrease
  • 75. 
    According to IS specifications, the compressive strength of ordinary portland cement after three days should not be less than

  • 7 MPa
  • 11.5 MPa
  • 16 MPa
  • 21 MPa
  • 76. 
    Addition of pozzolana to ordinary Portland cement increases

  • bleeding
  • shrinkage
  • permeability
  • heat of hydration
  • 77. 
    Gypsum consists of

  • H2S and C02
  • CaS04 and H20
  • Lime and H20
  • C02 and calcium
  • 78. 
    For testing compressive and tensile strength of cement, the cement mortar is made by mixing cement and standard sand in the proportions of

  • 1:2
  • 1:3
  • 1:4
  • 1:6
  • 79. 
    The slump recommended for mass concrete is about

  • 25 mm to 50 mm
  • 50 mm to 100 mm
  • 100 mm to 125 mm
  • 125 mm to 150 mm
  • 80. 
    With increase in moisture content, the bulking of sand

  • increases
  • decreases
  • first increases to a certain maximum value and then decreases
  • first decreases to a certain minimum value and then increases
  • 81. 
    Which of the following cements is suitable for use in massive concrete structures such as large dams ?

  • ordinary Portland cement
  • low heat cement
  • rapid hardening cement
  • sulphate resisting cement
  • 82. 
    Proper amount of entrained air in concrete results in i) better workability ii) better resistance to freezing and thawing iii) lesser workability iv) less resistance to freezing and thawing The correct answer is

  • (i) and (ii)
  • (i)and(iv)
  • (ii) and (iii)
  • (iii) and (iv)
  • 83. 
    The most common admixture which is used to accelerate the initial set of concrete is

  • gypsum
  • calcium chloride
  • calcium carbonate
  • none of the above
  • 84. 
    The maximum quantity of calcium chloride used as an accelerator in cement in percentage by weight of cement is

  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
  • 85. 
    The basic purpose of a retarder in concrete is

  • to increase the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
  • to decrease the initial setting time of cement paste in concrete
  • to render the concrete more water tight
  • to improve the workability of concrete mix
  • 86. 
    Which of the following cements contains maximum percentage of dicalcium silicate?

  • ordinary Portland cement
  • low heat cement
  • rapid hardening cement
  • sulphate resisting cement
  • 87. 
    The most commonly used retarder in cement is

  • gypsum
  • calcium chloride
  • calcium carbonate
  • none of the above
  • 88. 
    Three basic raw materials which are needed in large quantities for production of steel are

  • iron ore, coal and sulphur
  • iron ore, carbon and sulphur
  • iron ore, coal and lime stone
  • iron ore, carbon and lime stone
  • 89. 
    Compared to mild steel, cast iron has i) high compressive strength ii) high tensile strength iii) low compressive strength iv) low tensile strength The correct answer is

  • (i) and (ii)
  • (ii) and (iii)
  • (iii) and (iv)
  • (i)and(iv)
  • 90. 
    Which of the following gradients exerts maximum influence on properties of steel?

  • iron
  • carbon
  • manganese
  • sulphur
  • 91. 
    Which of the following is the purest form of iron ?

  • cast iron
  • wrought iron
  • mild steel
  • high carbon steel
  • 92. 
    The ultimate tensile strength of structural mild steel is about

  • 160N/mm2
  • 260N/mm2
  • 420 N/mm2
  • 520 N/mm2
  • 93. 
    Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is

  • less than 0.25
  • between 0.25 and 0.7
  • between 0.7 and 1.5
  • greater than 1.5
  • 94. 
    Which of the following stresses is used for identifying the quality of structural steel ?

  • ultimate stress
  • yield stress
  • proof stress
  • none of the above
  • 95. 
    The ratio of the thickness of web to that of flange of steel rolled structural beams and channels is

  • less than 1
  • equal to 1
  • greater than 1
  • less than 1 in beams but greater than 1 in channels
  • 96. 
    Paints with white lead base are suitable for painting of

  • wood work
  • iron work
  • both wood work and iron work
  • none of the above
  • 97. 
    Assertion A : Paints with white lead base are not recommended for painting of iron works. Reason R : Paints with white lead base do not check rusting of iron. Select your answer according to the coding system given below :

  • Both A and R are true and, R is the correct explanation of A.
  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • A is true but R is false
  • A is false but R is true
  • 98. 
    The amount of water used for one kg of distemper is

  • 0.2 liter
  • 0.4 liter
  • 0.6 liter
  • 0.8 liter
  • 99. 
    The vehicle used in case of enamel paints is usually

  • linseed oil
  • water
  • varnish
  • none of the above
  • 100. 
    . Assertion A : Normally turpentine oil is recommended as thinner for indoor painting. Reason R : Turpentine oil is costlier than other thinners. Select your answer according to the coding system given below :

  • Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  • Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  • A is true but R is false.
  • A is false but R is true.
  • 101. 
    . In brick masonry the bond produced by laying alternate headers and stretchers in each course is known as

  • English bond
  • double flemish bond
  • zigzag bond
  • single flemish bond
  • 102. 
    . The stretcher bond in brick masonry can be used only when the thickness of wall is

  • 90 mm
  • 180 mm
  • 190 mm
  • 280 mm
  • 103. 
    . The pressure acting on the stones in stone masonry construction should be

  • along the direction of bedding planes
  • at 45° to the direction of bedding planes
  • at 60° to the direction of bedding planes
  • perpendicular to the direction of bedding planes
  • 104. 
    . Which of the following should be used for hearting of thicker walls ?

  • headers
  • stretchers
  • brick bats
  • queen closer
  • 105. 
    . A queen closer is a

  • brick laid with its length parallel to the face or direction of wall
  • brick laid with its breadth parallel to the face or direction of wall
  • brick having the same length and depth as the other bricks but half the breadth
  • brick with half the width at one end and full width at the other
  • 106. 
    . Minimum thickness of wall where single flemish bond can be used is

  • half brick thick
  • one brick thick
  • one and a half bricks thick
  • two bricks thick
  • 107. 
    . The most important tool in brick laying for lifting and spreading mortar and for forming joints is

  • trowel
  • square
  • bolster
  • scutch
  • 108. 
    . Expansion Joints in masonry walls are provided in wall lengths usater than

  • 10 m
  • 20 m
  • 30 m
  • 40 m
  • 109. 
    . The type of bond provided in brick masonry for carrying heavy loads is

  • single flemish bond
  • double flemish bond
  • English bond
  • zigzag bond
  • 110. 
    . A mortar joint in masonry which is normal to the face of wall is known as

  • bed joint
  • wall joint
  • cross joint
  • bonded joint
  • 111. 
    . The proportions of lime and sand in the mortar normally used in brick construction are

  • 1:2
  • 1:4
  • 1:6
  • 1:8
  • 112. 
    . Number of vertical joints in a stretcher course is x times the number of joints in the header course, where x is equal to

  • 1/2
  • 1
  • 2
  • 1/4
  • 113. 
    . As compared to stretcher course, the thickness of joints in header course should be

  • less
  • more
  • equal
  • equal or more
  • 114. 
    . As compared to English bond, double flemish bond is

  • stronger
  • more compact
  • costly
  • none of the above
  • 115. 
    . Single flemish bond consists of

  • double flemish bond facing and Eng-lish bond backing in each course
  • English bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
  • stretcher bond facing and double flemish bond backing in each course
  • double flemish bond facing and header bond backing in each course
  • 116. 
    . The differential settlement in case of foundations on sandv soils should not exceed

  • 25 mm
  • 40 mm
  • 65 mm
  • 100 mm
  • 117. 
    . In case of foundations on black cotton soils, the most suitable method to increase the bearing capacity of soils is to

  • increase the depth of foundation
  • drain the soil
  • compact the soil
  • replace the poor soil
  • 118. 
    . The type of footing which is used to transmit heavy loads through steel columns is

  • raft foundation
  • grillage foundation
  • well foundation
  • isolated footing
  • 119. 
    . The maximum total settlement for isolated foundations on clayey soils should be limited to

  • 25 mm
  • 40 mm
  • 65 mm
  • 100 mm
  • 120. 
    . The type of pile which is driven at an inclination to resist inclined forces is known as

  • friction pile
  • sheet pile
  • batter pile
  • anchor pile
  • 121. 
    . The minimum depth of foundation in clayey soils is

  • 0.5 m
  • 0.7 m
  • 0.9 m
  • 1.2 m
  • 122. 
    . The maximum total settlement for raft foundation on clayey soils should be limited to

  • 25 mm
  • 25 to 40 mm
  • 40 to 65 mm
  • 65 to 100 mm
  • 123. 
    . The bearing capacity of a water logged soil can be improved by

  • compacting the soil
  • draining the soil
  • increasing the depth of foundation
  • grouting
  • 124. 
    . The type of flooring suitable for use in churches, theatres, public libraries and other places where noiseless floor covering is desired is

  • cork flooring
  • glass flooring
  • wooden flooring
  • linoleum flooring
  • 125. 
    . The vertical distance between the springing line and highest point of the innercurve of an arch is known as

  • intrados
  • rise
  • spandril
  • extrados
  • 126. 
    . Depth or height of the arch is the

  • perpendicular distance between intra-dos and extrados
  • vertical distance between springing line and intrados
  • perpendicular distance between springing line and extrados
  • none of the above
  • 127. 
    . The triangular space formed between the extrados and the horizontal line drawn through the crown of an arch is known as

  • haunch
  • spandril
  • voussoirs
  • skewbacks
  • 128. 
    . The lintels are preferred to arches because

  • arches require more headroom to span the openings like doors, windows etc.
  • arches require strong abutments to withstand arch thrust
  • arches are difficult in construction
  • all of the above
  • 129. 
    . In the construction of arches, sand box method is used for

  • centring
  • actual laying of arch work
  • striking of centring
  • none of the above
  • 130. 
    . The type of arch generally constructed over a wooden lintel or over a flat arch for the purpose of carrying the load of the wall above is

  • segmental arch
  • pointed arch
  • relieving arch
  • flat arch
  • 131. 
    . The type of joint commonly used at the junction of a principal rafter and tie beam in timber trussess is

  • mortise and tennon joint
  • oblique mortise and tennon joint
  • butt joint
  • mitred joint
  • 132. 
    . The type of roof suitable in plains where rainfall is meagre and temperature is high is

  • pitched and sloping roof
  • flat roof
  • shell roof
  • none of the above
  • 133. 
    . Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for

  • coastal regions
  • plain regions
  • covering large areas
  • all of the above
  • 134. 
    . The type of roof which slopes in two directions with a break in the slope on each side is known as

  • gable roof
  • hip roof
  • gambrel roof
  • mansard roof
  • 135. 
    . Mansard roof is a roof which slopes in

  • two directions without break in the slope on each side
  • two directions with break in the slope on each side
  • four directions without break in the slope on each side
  • four directions with break in the slope on each side
  • 136. 
    . The horizontal timber piece provided at the apex of a roof truss which supports the common rafter is called

  • ridge board
  • hip rafter
  • eaves board
  • valley rafter
  • 137. 
    . The lower edge of the pitched roof, from where the rain water of the roof surface drops down, is known as

  • hip
  • gable
  • ridge
  • eaves
  • 138. 
    . Higher pitch of the roof i) results in stronger roof ii) results in weaker roof iii) requires more covering material iv) requires less covering material The correct answer is

  • (i) and (iii)
  • (i) and (iv)
  • (ii) and (iii)
  • (ii) and (iv)
  • 139. 
    . Couple close roof is suitable for maximum span of

  • 2.5 m
  • 3.5 m
  • 4.5 m
  • 5.5 m
  • 140. 
    . In a colar beam roof

  • there is no horizontal tie beam
  • there is a horizontal tie at the feet of rafters only
  • there is a horizontal tie at almost the middle of rafters only
  • there are two horizontal ties, one at the feet and other at the middle of the rafters
  • 141. 
    . The function of king post in a king post roof truss is

  • to support the frame work of the roof
  • to receive the ends of principal rafter
  • to prevent the walls from spreading outward
  • to prevent the tie beam from sagging at its centre
  • 142. 
    . The function of cleats in a roof truss is

  • to support the common rafter
  • to support purlins
  • to prevent the purlins from tilting
  • all of the above
  • 143. 
    . The term string is used for

  • the underside of a stair
  • outer projecting edge of a tread
  • a sloping member which supports the steps in a stair
  • a vertical member between two treads
  • 144. 
    . The vertical posts placed at the top and bottom ends of a flight supporting the hand rail are known as

  • balusters
  • newal posts
  • balustrades
  • railings
  • 145. 
    . The maximum number of steps in a flight should generally be restricted to

  • 10
  • 12
  • 15
  • no limit
  • 146. 
    . The number of steps in a flight generally should not be less than

  • 2
  • 3
  • 5
  • no limit
  • 147. 
    . Sum of tread and rise must lie between

  • 300 to 350 mm
  • 400 to 450 mm
  • 500 to 550 mm
  • 600 to 650 mm
  • 148. 
    . Minimum width of landing should be

  • equal to width of stairs
  • half the width of stairs
  • twice the width of stairs
  • one fourth the width of stairs
  • 149. 
    . In any good staircase, the maximum and minimum pitch respectively should be

  • 90° and 0°
  • 75° and 30°
  • 60° and 10°
  • 40° and 25°
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