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Quiz
Quiz
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Irrigation Water Resourses Engineering and Hydrology MCQ Interview Questions and Answers
1.
Which of the following methods of applying water may be used on rolling land ?
boarder flooding
check flooding
furrow flooding
free flooding
2.
The value of Sodium Absorption Ratio for high sodium water lies between
0 to 10
10 to 18
18 to 26
26 to 34
3.
Optimum depth of kor watering for rice is
135 mm
165 mm
190 mm
215 mm
4.
Irrigation water having the concentration of Na++ , Ca++ and Mg++ as 20, 3 and 1 Milli equivalent per litre respectively will be classified as
low sodium water
medium sodium water
high sodium water
very high sodium water
5.
The duty is largest
at the head of water course
on the field
at the head of a main canal
same at all places
6.
The “outlet discharge factor” is the duty at the head of
main canal
branch canal
watercourse
distributory
7.
The kor depth for rice is 190 mm and kor period is 14 days. The outlet factor for this will be
637 hectares/m3/sec
837 hectares/m3/sec
972 hectares/m3/sec
1172 hectares/m3/sec
8.
For supplying water to rabi crop, kharif crop and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a capacity equal to the greater of the water requirement of
rabi or kharif
rabi and kharif or sugarcane
rabi and sugarcane or kharif and sugarcane
rabi or kharif or sugarcane
9.
The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the root zone of the crops to the quantity of water actually delivered in the field is known as
water conveyance efficiency
water application efficiency
water use efficiency
none of the above
10.
The water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of
gravity water
capillary water
hydroscopic water
chemical water
11.
The amount of irrigation water required to meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during its full growth is called
effective rainfall
consumptive use
consumptive irrigation requirement
net irrigation requirement
12.
With the increase in the quantity of water supplied, the yield of most crops
increases continuously
decreases continuously
increases upto a certain limit and then becomes constant
increases upto a certain limit and then decreases
13.
Hydrograph is the graphical representation of
runoff and time
surface runoff and time
ground waterflow and time
rainfall and time
14.
Infiltration rate is always
more than the infiltration capacity
less than the infiltration capacity
equal to or less than the infiltration capacity
equal to or more than the infiltration capacity
15.
The depth of water required to bring the soil moisture content of a given soil upto its field capacity is called
hygroscopic water
equivalent moisture
soil moisture deficiency
pellicular water
16.
Infiltration capacity
is a constant factor
changes with time
changes with location
changes with both time and location
17.
Infiltration is the
movement of water through the soil
absorption of water by soil surface
both (a) and (b)
none of the above
18.
If the intensity of rainfall is more than the infiltration capacity of soil, then the infiltration rate will be
equal to rate of rainfall
equal to infiltration capacity
more than rate of rainfall
more than infiltration capacity
19.
Cyclonic precipitation is caused by lifting of an air mass due to
pressure difference
temperature difference
natural topographical barriers
all of the above
20.
Which of the following is a non-recording raingauge ?
tipping bucket type raingauge
Simon’s raingauge
Steven’s weighing type raingauge
floating type raingauge
21.
A raingauge should preferably be fixed
near the building
under the tree
in an open space
in a closed space
22.
Which of the following types of rain gauges is used for measuring rain in remote hilly inaccessible areas ?
tipping bucket type
weighing type
floating type
Simon’s raingauge
23.
Rate of evaporation from a water surface increases if i) difference of vapour pressure between water and air is increased ii) velocity of wind is decreased iii) concentration of soluble solids in water is decreased The correct answer is
(i) and (ii)
(i) and (iii)
(ii) and (iii)
(i). (ii) and (iii)
24.
A 70% index of wetness means
rain excess of 30%
rain deficiency of 30%
rain deficiency of 70%
none of the above
25.
Under the same conditions, which of the following shapes of water surface will give the highest rate of evaporation ?
flat water surface
convex water surface
concave water surface
independent of shape of water surface
26.
Assertion A : To estimate the rainfall over a catchment, the number of raingauges required per unit area is large for hilly areas. Reason R : Rainfall gradient is steep. Select your correct answer according to the coding system given below :
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false but R is true
27.
When surface of transpiration is submerged under water, then potential evapotranspiration is
much more than evapotranspiration
much less than evapotranspiration
equal to evapotranspiration
equal to or less than evapotranspi-ration
28.
Unit of runoff in M.K.S. system is
cubic metre/sec
metre/sec
cubic metre
square metre
29.
The runoff increases with
increase in intensity of rain
increase in infiltration capacity
increase in permeability of soil
all of the above
30.
The area between the isohyets 45 cm and 55 cm is 100 square km and between 55 cm and 65 cm is 150 square km. The average depth of annua! precipitation over the above basin of 250 square km will be
50 cm
55 cm
56 cm
60 cm
31.
A current meter is used to measure the
velocity of flow of water
depth of flow of water
discharge
none of the above
32.
If it rains between 2 P.M. and 3 P.M. and the entire basin area just starts contributing water at 3 P.M. to the outlet, then time of concentration will be
15 minutes
20 minutes
30 minutes
60 minutes
33.
The rainfall on five successive days were measured as 100 mm, 80 mm, 60 mm, 40 mm and 20 mm respectively. If the infiltration index or the storm loss rate for the catchment area is earlier estimated as 50 mm/day, the total surface run off will be
50 mm
60 mm
90 mm
140 mm
34.
The normal annual precipitation at stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If the storm precipitation at three station A, B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm respectively, then the storm precipitation for station X will be
70mm
80mm
90 mm
105 mm
35.
The best unit duration of storm for a unit hydrograph is
1 hour
one-fourth of basin lag
one-half of basin lag
equal to basin lag
36.
The unit hydrograph due to a storm may be obtained by dividing the ordinates of the direct runoff hydrograph by
direct runoff volume
period of storm
total rainfall
none of the above
37.
The unit hydrograph of a specified duration can be used to evaluate the hydrograph of storms of
same duration only
same and shorter duration
same and longer duration
any duration
38.
S-hydrograph is used to obtain unit hydrograph of
shorter duration from longer duration
longer duration from shorter duration
both (a) and (b)
none of the above
39.
The relation between probability (P) and recurrence interval (T) is given by
PT = 1
PT2 = 1
P/T = 1
P/T2 = 1
40.
Dimensions of coefficient of transmissibility are
M°L°T°
rvfL’T”1
M° L2 T1
M’LV
41.
If d is the depth of the aquifer through which water is flowing, then the relationship between permeability k and transmissible T is given by
T = kd
T = k/d
T= Vkd
k= VTd
42.
An artesian aquifer is the one where
water surface under the ground is at atmospheric pressure
water is under pressure between two impervious strata
water table serves as upper surface of zone of saturation
none of the above
43.
A deep well
is always deeper than a shallow well
has more discharge than a shallow well
is weaker structurally than a shallow well
both (a) and (b)
44.
A multipurpose reservoir is the one which is
designed for one purpose but serves more than one purpose
planned and constructed to serve various purposes
both (a) and (b)
none of the above
45.
The useful storage is the volume of water stored in the reservoir between
minimum pool level and maximum pool level
minimum pool level and normal pool level
normal pool level and maximum pool level
river bed and minimum pool level
46.
The water stored in the reservoir below the minimum pool level is called
useful storage
dead storage
valley storage
surcharge storage
47.
For a flood control reservoir, the effective storage is equal to
useful storage – valley storage
useful storage + surcharge storage
useful storage + surcharge storage + valley storage
useful storage + surcharge storage -valley storage
48.
Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
capacity/inflow ratio
capacity/outflow ratio
outflow/inflow ratio
none of the above
49.
The total capacity of a reservoir is 25 million cubic metres and dead storage is 5 million cubic metres. If the average volume of sediment deposition is 0.10 million cubic metre per year, then the usefulness of the reservoir will start reducing after
50 years
150 years
200 years
250 years
50.
The forces, which are considered for the analysis of an elementary profile of a gravity dam under empty reservoir condition, are i) Water pressure ii) Self weight iii) Uplift iv) Pressure due to earthquake The correct answer is
Only (ii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
51.
When the upstream face of a gravity dam is vertical, then the intensity of water pressure at the water surface and at the base respectively will be where w is unit weight of water and H is the depth of water.
0 and wH212
wH2/2and wH2/3
wH and 0
OandwII
52.
The uplift pressure on a dam can be controlled by i) constructing cutoff under upstream face ii) constructing drainage channels bet-ween the dam and its foundation iii) by pressure grouting in foundation The corret answer is
only (i)
both (i) and (ii)
both (i) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
53.
The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage gallery in a dam is taken as
hydrostatic pressure at toe
average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus one-third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
none of the above
54.
Horizontal acceleration due to earthquake results in
hydrodynamic pressure
inertia force into the body of the dam
both (a) and (b)
none of the above
55.
Hydrodynamic pressure due to earthquake acts at a height of
3H/47I above the base
3H747t below the water surface
4H/371 above the base
4H737t below the water surface where H is the depth of water.
56.
The major resisting force in a gravity dam is
water pressure
wave pressure
self-weight of dam
uplift pressure
57.
When the reservoir is full, the maximum compressive force in a gravity dam is produced
at the toe
at the heel
within the middle third of base
at centre of base
58.
The maximum permissible eccentricity for no tension at the base of a gravity dam is
B/2
B/3
B/4
B/6
59.
Presence of tail water in a gravity dam i) increases the principal stress ii) decreases the principal stress iii) increases the shear stress iv) decreases the shear stress The correct answer is
(i) and (iii)
(i)and(iv)
(ii) and (iii)
(ii) and (iv)
60.
For wave action in dams, the maximum height of freeboard is generally taken to be equal to where hw is height of wave.
0.5 hw
0.75 hw
1.25 hw
1.50 hw
61.
As compared to gravity dams, earthen dams
are costlier
are less susceptible to failure
require sound rock foundations
require less skilled labour
62.
The most suitable material for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type dam is
clay
coarse sand
silty clay
clay mixed with fine sand
63.
Seepage through embankments in an earthen dam is controlled by
drainage filters
relief wells
drain trenches
provision of downstream berms
64.
Seepage through foundation in an earthen dam is controlled by providing
rock toe
horizontal blanket
impervious cut off
chimney drain
65.
The flow of water after spilling over the weir crest in chute spillway and side channel spillway respectively are
at right angle and parallel to weir crest
parallel and at right angle to weir crest
parallel to weir crest in both
at right angle to weir crest in both
66.
The discharge passing over an ogee spillway is given by where, L is effective length of spillway crest and H is the total head over the spillway crest including velocity head.
CLH3/2
CHL3/2
CLH5/2
CLH1/2
67.
Coefficient of discharge of an ogee spillway
depends on depth of approach and upstream slope
depends on downstream apron interference and downstream submergence
remains constant
both (a) and (b)
68.
Which of the following spillways is least suitable for an earthen dam ?
ogee spillway
chute spillway
side channel spillway
shaft spillway
69.
In case of non-availability of space due to topography, the most suitable spillway is
straight drop spillway
shaft spillway
chute spillway
ogee spillway
70.
In a chute spillway, the flow is usually
uniform
subcritical
critical
super critical
71.
For the upstream face of an earthen dam, the most adverse condition for stability of slope is
sudden drawdown
steady seepage
during construction
sloughing of slope
72.
If there are two canals taking off from each flank of a river, then there will be
one divide wall and one undersluice
one divide wall and two undersluices
two divide walls and one undersluice
two divide walls and two undersluices
73.
Generally the weir is aligned at right angles to the direction of the main river current because
it ensures less length of the weir
it gives better discharging capacity
it is economical
all of the above
74.
The main function of a divide wall is to
control the silt entry in the canal
prevent river floods from entering the canal
separate the undersluices from weir proper
provide smooth flow at sufficiently low velocity
75.
A divide wall is provided
at right angle to the axis of weir
parallel to the axis of weir and up-stream of it
parallel to the axis of weir and down-stream of it
at an inclination to the axis of weir
76.
As compared to crest of the normal portion of the weir, the crest of the under sluice portion of weir is kept at
lower level
higher level
same level
any of the above depending on the design
77.
Silt excluders are constructed on the
river bed upstream of head regulator
river bed downstream of head regulator
canal bed upstream of head regulator
canal bed downstream of head regulator
78.
According to Khosla’s theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is
0
unity
infinity
very large
79.
The minimum size of stone that will remain at rest in a channel of longitudinal slope S and hydraulic mean depth R is given by
4RS
11 RS
7RS
15 RS
80.
The ratio of average values of shear stresses produced on the bed and the banks of a channel due to flowing water is
less than 1
equal to 1
greater than 1
equal to zero
81.
If the critical shear stress of a channel is xc, then the average value of shear stress required to move the grain on the bank is
0.5 xc
0.75 TC
xc
1.33 TC
82.
As per Lacey’s theory, the silt factor is
directly proportional to average par¬ticle size
inversely proportional to average par¬ticle size
directly proportional to square root of average particle size
not related to average particle size
83.
Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey’s theory will be
19 m
38m
57m
76m
84.
Which of the following canal structures is used to remove surplus water from an irrigation channel into a natural drain ?
canal fall
canal outlet
canal escape
canal regulator
85.
For a proportional outlet, the flexibility is
zero
between zero and 1
1
greater than 1
86.
The sensitivity of a rigid module is
zero
between zero and one
1
infinity
87.
Which of the following is a flexible outlet ?
submerged pipe outlet
Kennedy’s gauge outlet
Gibb’s outlet
none of the above
88.
A straight glacis type fall with a baffle platform and a baffle wall is called
vertical dropfall
glacis fall
Montague type fall
inglis fall
89.
Which of the following types of falls use parabolic glacis for energy dissipation ?
vertical drop fall
glacis fall
Montague type fall
inglis fall
90.
In a Sarda type fall, rectangular crest is used for discharge upto
6 cumecs
10 cumecs
14 cumecs
20 cumecs
91.
Which of the following can be used as a meter fall ?
vertical drop fall
flumed glacis fall
unflumed glacis fall
all of the above
92.
Vertical drop fall is satisfactory for a height upto
0.5 m
1.5 m
3.5 m
5.0 m
93.
Which of the following canal outlets maintains a constant discharge ?
non-modular outlet
flexible outlet
rigid module
none of the above
94.
The ratio of rate of change of the discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of the discharge of distributing channel is called
proportionality
flexibility
setting
sensitivity
95.
The drainage water intercepting the canal can be disposed of by passing the canal below the drainage in
aqueduct and syphon aqueduct
aqueduct and super passage
super passage and canal syphon
level crossing
96.
If the R.L’s of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be
aqueduct
superpassage
syphon
syphon aqueduct
97.
The aqueduct or superpassage type of works are generally used when
high flood drainage discharge is small
high flood drainage discharge is large and short lived
high flood drainage discharge is large and continues for a long time
none of the above
98.
An aggrading river is a
silting river
scouring river
both silting and scouring river
neither silting nor scouring river
99.
Tortuosity of a meandering river is the ratio of
meander belt to meander length
meander length to meander belt
curved length along the channel to the direct axial length of the river reach
direct axial length of the river reach to curved length along the channel
100.
. The meander pattern of a river is developed by
average discharge
dominant discharge
maximum discharge
critical discharge
101.
. The main cause of meandering is
presence of an excessive bed slope in the river
degradation
the extra turbulence generated by the excess of river sediment during floods
none of the above
102.
. Tortuosity of a meandering river is always
equal to 1
less than 1
greater than 1
less than or equal to 1
103.
. Select the correct statement.
A meander increases the river length but a cut off reduces the river length.
A cutoff increases the river length but a meander reduces the river length.
Both meander and cutoff increase the river length.
Both meander and cutoff decrease the river length.
104.
. River training for depth is achieved by
groynes
construction of dykes or leavees
both (a) and (b)
groynes and bandalling
105.
. Main purpose of mean water training for rivers is
flood control
to provide sufficient depth of water in navigable channels, during low water periods
to preserve the channel in good shape by efficient disposal of suspended and bed load
all of the above
106.
. If D is the depth of scour below original bed, then the width of launching apron is generally taken as
1.2 D
1.5 D
2.0 D
2.5 D
107.
. Study the following statements. i) Levees are constructed parallel to river flow, ii) Spurs are constructed parallel to river flow, iii) Levees are constructed transverse to river flow, iv) Spurs are constructed transverse to river flow. The correct answer is
(i) and (ii)
(i) and (iv)
(ii) and (iii)
(iii) and (iv)
108.
. A repelling groyne is aligned
pointing upstream
pointing downstream
perpendicular to bank
parallel to bank
109.
. A river training work is generally required when the river is
aggrading type
degrading type
meandering type
both (a) and (b)
110.
. A river bend characterized by silting
scouring on concave side
silting on convex side
scouring on convex side and on concave side
scouring on concave side and silting on convex side
111.
. Select the incorrect statement.
Intensive irrigation should be avoided in areas susceptible to water logging.
Extensive irrigation should be adopted in areas susceptible to water logging.
Lift irrigation increases water logging.
all of the above
112.
. A land is known as waterlogged
when the permanent wilting point is reached
when gravity drainage has ceased
capillary fringe reaches the root zone of plants
none of the above
113.
. Lining of irrigation channels
increases the waterlogging area
decreases the waterlogging area
does not change the water logging area
none of the above
114.
. A runoff river plant is
a low head scheme
a medium head scheme
a high head scheme
none of the above
115.
. The net speed under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency is called
design speed
rated speed
gross speed
operating speed
116.
. A runoff river plant
is a medium head scheme
generates power during peak hours only
is suitable only on a perennial river
has no pondage at all
117.
. The net head under which the turbine reaches its peak efficiency at synchronous speed is called
design head
rated head
gross head
operating head
118.
. The ratio of the average load to the installed capacity of the plant whose reserve capacity is zero will be equal to
load factor
plant factor
utilisation factor
both (a) and (b)
119.
. A hydroelectric scheme operating under a head of 80 m will be classified as
low head scheme
medium head scheme
high head scheme
none of the above
120.
. A hyetograph is a graphical representation of
rainfall intensity and time
rainfall depth and time
discharge and time
cumulative rainfall and time
121.
. Variability of rainfall is i) largest in regions of high rainfall ii) largest in coastal areas iii) largest in regions of scanty rainfall The correct answer is
only (i)
(i) and (ii)
only (iii)
(ii) and (iii)
122.
. In India, which of the following is adopted as standard recording raingauge ?
Symon’s raingauge
tipping bucket type
natural syphon type
weighing bucket type
123.
. The maximum average depth due to one day storm over an area of 100 km2 is 100 mm. Depth-Area-Duration (DAD) curves indicate that for the same area of 100 km2 the maximum average depth for a 3 hour storm will be
100 mm
more than 100 mm
less than 100 mm
none of the above
124.
. The maximum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24 hours has a return period of 100 years. The probability of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater than 300 mm occurring at least once in 10 years is given by
(0.99)10
1 – (0.99)10
(0.9)’00
l-(0.9)100
125.
. The most suitable chemical which can be applied to the water surface for reducing evaporation is
methyl alcohol
ethyl alcohol
cetyl alcohol
butyl alcohol
126.
. Interception losses are due to i) evaporation ii) transpiration iii) stream flow The correct answer is
only (i)
(i)and(ii)
(ii) and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
127.
. A 6 hours storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the resulting runoff was 2 cm. If
4.5 cm
6.0 cm
7.5 cm
9.0 cm
128.
. Which of the following methods is used to estimate flood discharge based on high water marks left over in the past ?
slope-area method
area-velocity method
moving boat method
ultra-sonic method
129.
. To determine the discharge at a section in a stream from its rating curve, the required data are i) slope of water surface at the section ii) stage at the section iii) current meter readings at the section The correct answer is
(i) and (ii)
(ii) and (iii)
only (ii)
only (iii)
130.
. The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q m7sec at a point is 10 m and slope of water surface is (1/4000). The discharge of a flood at the same point and same stage of 10 m with a water surface slope of(l/1000)willbe
V2 Q m3/sec
0.5 Q mVsec
2 Q m3/sec
4 Q m3/sec
131.
. The stream which does not have any base flow contribution is called
perennial stream
intermittent stream
ephemeral stream
none of the above
132.
. The flow-mass curve is graphical representation of
cumulative discharge and time
discharge and percentage probability of flow being equaled or exceeded
cumulative discharge, volume and time in chronological order
discharge and time in chronological order
133.
. If the demand line drawn from a ridge in a flow mass curve does not intersect the curve again, it indicates that
demand cannot be met by inflow
reservoir was not full at the beginning
both (a) and (b)
none of the above
134.
. The shape of recession limb of a hydrograph depends upon
basin characteristics only
storm characteristics only
both (a) and (b)
none of the above
135.
. Instantaneous unit hydrograph is a hydrograph of i) unit duration ii) unit rainfall excess iii) infinitely small duration iv) infinitely small rainfall excess The correct answer is
(i) and (ii)
(i)and(iv)
(ii) and (iii)
(iii) and (iv)
136.
. For a catchment area of 120 km2, the equilibrium discharge in m3/hour of an S-curve obtained by the summation of 6 hour unit hydro graph is
0.2 x 106
0.6 x 106
2.4 xlO6
7.2 xlO6
137.
. A unit hydro graph has one unit of
rainfall duration
rainfall excess
time base of direct runoff
discharge
138.
. The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240 m3/sec . If the rainfall excess is 80 mm and base flow which is constant is 40 m3/sec, then the peak of 4-hours unit hydrograph will be
20 3/sec
25 m3/sec
30 m3/sec
35 m3/sec
139.
. To estimate the magnitude of a flood with a return period of T years, Gumbel’s distribution method requires the following data pertaining to annual flood series i) mean value ii) standard deviation iii) length of record iv) coefficient of skew The correct answer is
(i) and (ii)
(i),(iD and (iii)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
140.
. For an annual flood series arranged in descending order of magnitude, the return for a magnitude listed at position period m in a total data N is
N/(m+l)
m/(N+l)
m/N
(N+l)/m
141.
. If the risk of a flood occurring in the next 10 years is accepted to 10%, then the return period for design should be
1 + (0.9)010
1 – (0.9)°l0
1/(1-0.9°10)
1/(1+ 0.9010)
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